Post #51909 by albaby1 on the US Policy board

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The legitimacy of the Jewish claim to all of the once inhabited biblical lands rests on the foundation of delegitimizing the claims of all the subsequent inhabitants if the intervening 2000 years, not the least of which were the current inhabitants.

Not at all. Many (most?) Jews are perfectly comfortable with the "one lands, two peoples" argument. And even for those that don't, it's simply incorrect to say that the Jews don't also have a claim to be indigenous to those lands.

Yes, it makes the situation very difficult to resolve - perhaps intractable. But it's absolutely false to say the Jews do not have a claim to being indigenous to the region. It's literally where our people originated. It's not a "biblical" claim - there's no dispute that the Jews inhabited the area during Roman times, until they were driven out in the Roman-Judea wars in the second century.

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