Post #1693 by mdtls on the Berkshire Hathaway board

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As I type:

A's $497,000
B's $319

497,000/1500 = $331

Approximately 10% difference between B trading price and the 1/1500 value.

Are A's priced rich, or, are B's a 10% bargain?

Is this an arbitrage opportunity presented?

m

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