The Gospel of Matthew account then has Pilate disclaim responsibility for Jesus' death and has the Jewish crowd accept Jesus' blood on their head for themselves and all their children:

The gospels were written between about 50-100 AD. Matthew specifically was written no earlier than about 85 AD. Was anti-semitism prevalent that early? Because that line seems to target that one specific group, instead of blaming it all on the Romans (which it could have done). Xianity was growing at that time, but was still a tiny minority of religious thought. The Romans were still killing xians, often via damnatio ad bestias (i.e. being mauled by wild dogs, or more commonly predatory big cats like lions or leopards).

BTW, figured out the answer to whether Jordan/Egypt/Syria retained the lands. The Jordanians were the West Bank, and Jordan does not control that anymore. Apparently Egypt didn't hold any land for long (a matter of days/weeks), as they were counter-attacked and driven out. Apparently Syria had the Golan Heights, which they lost later.

Also, I'm wondering if this is more appropriate on the atheist board. It's not US Policy (for a change), and is mostly history and religion. Just a thought.