No. of Recommendations: 2
In a few years time, probably 2028, I will begin taking withdrawals from a retirement account.
The account is currently 100% Berkshire.
The withdrawals will be fixed (SEPP).
And because I can't control the price of Berkshire, I wanted to "work forward" and build a cash cushion.
For example, say the portfolio is $1m and the withdrawal $60k/yr.
The plan was to sell 5% of shares per year, spread across 4 quarters, starting now'ish in preparation for that initial $60k withdrawal in 2028.
But now that I'm typing this, maybe I should just sell $60k of Berkshire once per year starting in 2028 and be done with it?
That sounds the simplest.
P.S. I've studied Jim's annuitization model, and was originally planning to use that, but changed my mind to sell 5% of shares per year because it's a tad simpler and what Buffett recommends. I don't know.
