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Sorry, I don´t have a link. Looking at my spreadsheet I actually can´t reconstruct the reason, so we depend on Jim to explain.
All I can say:
- Inflation adjusted BV is calculated = factor A
- Then Peak BV to date calculated
- That is then smoothed (interpolated)
- Then 90% of smoothed peak real BV is calculated = factor B
(I think to remember Jim used 90% to avoid spikes/distortions by extraordinary events)
- It continues with the higher of A and B
- From that WMA16 is calculated
- Last step is this ominous multiplying WMA16 by 1.7
- (And adding the two trendlines, 1.2 respectively 1.7 times smoothed Peak BV)
